91. Question
Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of 'Absolute Liability'?
- (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
- (B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530
- (C) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
- (D) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
Answer
Correct Option: (A)
Explanation:
In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak Case, 1987), the Supreme Court evolved the doctrine of Absolute Liability. It held that an enterprise engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is absolutely liable to compensate for harm, without any exceptions unlike the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher.
- (A) Correct. Oleum Gas Leak Case—origin of Absolute Liability. ✔
- (B) Incorrect. Not the case establishing the doctrine. ❌
- (C) Incorrect. Deals with Public Trust Doctrine. ❌
- (D) Incorrect. Not related to Absolute Liability principle. ❌
Conclusion: The doctrine of Absolute Liability was laid down in the Oleum Gas Leak Case. Hence, the correct answer is (A).
91. प्रश्न
किस जनहित याचिका मामले में भारत के सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने 'पूर्ण दायित्व' (Absolute Liability) का सिद्धांत प्रतिपादित किया?
- (A) M.C. Mehta बनाम भारत संघ, AIR 1987 SC 1086
- (B) M.C. Mehta बनाम भारत संघ, 1988 SCR (2) 530
- (C) M.C. Mehta बनाम कमल नाथ, (1997) 1 SCC 388
- (D) M.C. Mehta बनाम भारत संघ, AIR 1997 SC 734
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (A)
व्याख्या:
ओलियम गैस रिसाव मामले (1987) में सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने पूर्ण दायित्व का सिद्धांत स्थापित किया, जिसमें खतरनाक उद्योग बिना किसी अपवाद के हानि के लिए उत्तरदायी होते हैं।
- (A) सही। ✔
- (B) गलत। ❌
- (C) गलत। ❌
- (D) गलत। ❌
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (A) है।
92. Question
In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?
- (A) Sahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees' State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346
- (B) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332
- (C) J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103
- (D) Union of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463
Answer
Correct Option: (C)
Explanation:
In J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa (1984), the Supreme Court recognized that the principle of nemo judex in causa sua (no one should be a judge in his own cause) is not absolute and may yield to the doctrine of necessity, where no alternative forum or authority is available.
- (A) Incorrect. Not related to doctrine of necessity in this context. ❌
- (B) Incorrect. Deals with delegated legislation. ❌
- (C) Correct. Recognizes exception via doctrine of necessity. ✔
- (D) Incorrect. Concerns Wednesbury reasonableness. ❌
Conclusion: The correct answer is (C).
92. प्रश्न
निम्नलिखित में से किस मामले में भारत के सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने कहा कि nemo judex in causa sua का सिद्धांत 'आवश्यकता के सिद्धांत' (Doctrine of Necessity) के अधीन है?
- (A) Sahni Silk Mills बनाम ESI Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346
- (B) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332
- (C) J. Mohapatra & Co. बनाम उड़ीसा राज्य, (1984) 4 SCC 103
- (D) Union of India बनाम G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (C)
व्याख्या:
J. Mohapatra मामले में न्यायालय ने माना कि निष्पक्षता का सिद्धांत पूर्ण नहीं है और आवश्यकता होने पर अपवाद लागू हो सकता है।
- (A) गलत। ❌
- (B) गलत। ❌
- (C) सही। ✔
- (D) गलत। ❌
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (C) है।
93. Question
As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit:
- I. has been finally decided.
- II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit.
- III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit.
- IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim.
Select the correct answer.
- (A) I, II and III
- (B) II, III and IV
- (C) I, III and IV
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer
Correct Option: (C)
Explanation:
Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lays down the doctrine of Res Judicata. For its application, the following conditions must be satisfied:
- I. True. The former suit must have been finally decided by a competent court. ✔
- II. False. The requirement is not about the timing of institution alone; rather, the matter must have been heard and finally decided. ❌
- III. True. The matter in issue must be directly and substantially the same in both suits. ✔
- IV. True. The suits must be between the same parties or their privies. ✔
Conclusion: Statements I, III, and IV are correct. Hence, the correct answer is (C).
93. प्रश्न
सिविल प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1908 की धारा 11 के अनुसार, रेस जुडिकाटा लागू होने के लिए पूर्व वाद में:
- I. अंतिम रूप से निर्णय किया गया हो।
- II. केवल बाद के वाद से पहले ही संस्थापित किया गया हो।
- III. वही मुद्दा प्रत्यक्ष और सार रूप से विवादित हो।
- IV. वही पक्षकार या उनके प्रतिनिधि हों।
सही उत्तर चुनिए:
- (A) I, II और III
- (B) II, III और IV
- (C) I, III और IV
- (D) I, II, III और IV
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (C)
व्याख्या:
- I. सही। अंतिम निर्णय आवश्यक है। ✔
- II. गलत। केवल समय महत्वपूर्ण नहीं है। ❌
- III. सही। समान मुद्दा होना चाहिए। ✔
- IV. सही। वही पक्षकार होने चाहिए। ✔
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (C) है।
94. Question
Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the:
- I. judgment-debtor is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court.
- II. judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dishonestly transferred any part of his property.
- III. decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account.
- IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substantial amount of the decree and neglected to pay the same.
Select the correct answer.
- (A) I, II and III
- (B) II, III and IV
- (C) I, III and IV
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer
Correct Option: (C)
Explanation:
Under Section 51 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, read with Order XXI, detention in civil prison for execution of a money decree can be ordered only if certain conditions are satisfied:
- I. True. Likelihood of absconding is a valid ground. ✔
- II. False. The provision refers to dishonest transfer after institution or to obstruct execution, not before institution. ❌
- III. True. Liability arising from fiduciary capacity is a valid ground. ✔
- IV. True. Having means to pay but neglecting to do so is a valid ground. ✔
Conclusion: Statements I, III and IV are correct. Hence, the correct answer is (C).
94. प्रश्न
जब डिक्री धन के भुगतान से संबंधित हो, तो सिविल कारावास द्वारा निष्पादन तभी किया जाएगा जब न्यायालय निम्न से संतुष्ट हो:
- I. निर्णय-ऋणी के भागने की संभावना है।
- II. निर्णय-ऋणी ने वाद दायर होने से पहले संपत्ति का कपटपूर्ण हस्तांतरण किया है।
- III. डिक्री ऐसी राशि के लिए है जिसके लिए निर्णय-ऋणी न्यासी क्षमता में उत्तरदायी था।
- IV. निर्णय-ऋणी के पास भुगतान की क्षमता है लेकिन उसने भुगतान नहीं किया।
सही उत्तर चुनिए:
- (A) I, II और III
- (B) II, III और IV
- (C) I, III और IV
- (D) I, II, III और IV
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (C)
व्याख्या:
- I. सही। ✔
- II. गलत। ❌
- III. सही। ✔
- IV. सही। ✔
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (C) है।
95. Question
As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant:
- I. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served.
- II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing.
- III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despite the fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer the plaintiff's claim.
- IV. without notice being served on the opposite party.
Select the correct answer.
- (A) I and II
- (B) I, II and III
- (C) I and IV
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer
Correct Option: (A)
Explanation:
Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an ex parte decree can be set aside if: (i) summons was not duly served, or (ii) the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing.
- I. True. Non-service of summons is a valid ground. ✔
- II. True. Sufficient cause for non-appearance is also a valid ground. ✔
- III. False. Mere irregularity in service is not sufficient if the defendant had notice and time to appear. ❌
- IV. False. Notice must be given to the opposite party before setting aside the decree. ❌
Conclusion: Only Statements I and II are correct. Hence, the correct answer is (A).
95. प्रश्न
सिविल प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1908 के अनुसार, एकपक्षीय डिक्री को निम्न स्थितियों में निरस्त किया जा सकता है:
- I. यदि समन विधिवत सेवा नहीं किया गया हो।
- II. यदि प्रतिवादी पर्याप्त कारण से उपस्थित नहीं हो पाया।
- III. यदि समन की सेवा में अनियमितता हो, जबकि प्रतिवादी को सुनवाई की तिथि का ज्ञान था।
- IV. बिना विपक्षी पक्ष को सूचना दिए।
सही उत्तर चुनिए:
- (A) I और II
- (B) I, II और III
- (C) I और IV
- (D) I, II, III और IV
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (A)
व्याख्या:
- I. सही। ✔
- II. सही। ✔
- III. गलत। ❌
- IV. गलत। ❌
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (A) है।
96. Question
When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
- (A) Only if it is made voluntarily in writing
- (B) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
- (C) Only if it is supported by two independent witnesses
- (D) Only if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed
Answer
Correct Option: (B)
Explanation:
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (similar to the earlier Evidence Act principles), a confession made while in police custody is generally inadmissible unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
- (A) Incorrect. Mere voluntariness is not sufficient in police custody. ❌
- (B) Correct. Presence of Magistrate makes it admissible. ✔
- (C) Incorrect. No such requirement in law. ❌
- (D) Incorrect. Timing of charge sheet is irrelevant. ❌
Conclusion: Confession in police custody is admissible only when made before a Magistrate. Hence, the correct answer is (B).
96. प्रश्न
भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 2023 के अंतर्गत, पुलिस हिरासत में दिया गया स्वीकारोक्ति कब मान्य होता है?
- (A) केवल यदि यह स्वेच्छा से लिखित रूप में दिया गया हो
- (B) केवल यदि यह मजिस्ट्रेट की उपस्थिति में दिया गया हो
- (C) केवल यदि यह दो स्वतंत्र गवाहों द्वारा समर्थित हो
- (D) केवल यदि यह चार्जशीट के बाद दर्ज किया गया हो
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (B)
व्याख्या:
पुलिस हिरासत में दिया गया स्वीकारोक्ति सामान्यतः अमान्य होता है, जब तक कि वह मजिस्ट्रेट की उपस्थिति में न दिया गया हो।
- (A) गलत। ❌
- (B) सही। ✔
- (C) गलत। ❌
- (D) गलत। ❌
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (B) है।
97. Question
Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
- (A) Section 38
- (B) Section 39
- (C) Section 36
- (D) Section 46
Answer
Correct Option: (C)
Explanation:
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, Section 36 deals with the relevancy of opinions of experts. It corresponds to Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which recognizes expert opinions in fields such as science, art, handwriting, and fingerprints.
- (A) Incorrect. ❌
- (B) Incorrect. ❌
- (C) Correct. Section 36 relates to expert opinion. ✔
- (D) Incorrect. ❌
Conclusion: The correct answer is (C).
97. प्रश्न
भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 2023 की कौन-सी धारा विशेषज्ञों की राय से संबंधित है?
- (A) धारा 38
- (B) धारा 39
- (C) धारा 36
- (D) धारा 46
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (C)
व्याख्या:
धारा 36 विशेषज्ञों की राय की प्रासंगिकता से संबंधित है।
- (A) गलत। ❌
- (B) गलत। ❌
- (C) सही। ✔
- (D) गलत। ❌
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (C) है।
98. Question
Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
- (A) A contracts, in writing, with B, for the delivery of indigo upon certain terms. The contract mentions the fact that B had paid A the price of other indigo contracted for, verbally, on another occasion. Oral evidence is offered that no payment was made for the other indigo. The evidence is admissible.
- (B) A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023, can be proved.
- (C) A enters into a written contract with B to work certain mines, the property of B, upon certain terms. A was induced to do so by a misrepresentation of B as to their value. This fact may be proved.
- (D) A orders goods from B by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. B sues A for the price. A may show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired.
Answer
Correct Option: (B)
Explanation:
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (similar to Sections 91–92 of the Evidence Act), when the terms of a contract are reduced to writing, no oral evidence can be given to contradict, vary, add to, or subtract from its terms, subject to certain exceptions.
- (A) Correct. It relates to a separate transaction; oral evidence is admissible. ✔
- (B) Incorrect. Oral agreement contradicting written terms (changing date of payment) is not admissible. ❌
- (C) Correct. Misrepresentation is an exception and can be proved. ✔
- (D) Correct. Where contract is silent, oral evidence can explain terms like credit. ✔
Conclusion: Statement (B) violates the rule against contradicting written contracts by oral evidence. Hence, the correct answer is (B).
98. प्रश्न
भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम, 2023 के अनुसार निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन गलत है?
- (A) लिखित अनुबंध के अतिरिक्त अलग लेन-देन के संबंध में मौखिक साक्ष्य स्वीकार्य है।
- (B) लिखित अनुबंध के विपरीत मौखिक समझौता सिद्ध किया जा सकता है।
- (C) मिथ्या प्रतिपादन को सिद्ध किया जा सकता है।
- (D) जहाँ अनुबंध मौन है, वहाँ मौखिक साक्ष्य से स्पष्टीकरण दिया जा सकता है।
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (B)
व्याख्या:
- (A) सही। ✔
- (B) गलत। ❌
- (C) सही। ✔
- (D) सही। ✔
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (B) है।
99. Question
As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibited relationship" if:
- I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption.
- II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood.
- III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father's or mother's brother or of the grandfather's or grandmother's brother of the other.
- IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sister or of two brothers or of two sisters.
Select the correct answer.
- (A) I, III and IV
- (B) III and IV
- (C) II, III and IV
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer
Correct Option: (D)
Explanation:
Section 3(g) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 defines "degrees of prohibited relationship" comprehensively and includes all the relationships mentioned above, whether by full blood, half blood, uterine blood, or adoption.
- I. True. Lineal ascendants/descendants (including adoption) are covered. ✔
- II. True. Spousal relationships of lineal relatives are included. ✔
- III. True. Extended affinal relations are also included. ✔
- IV. True. Close blood relations like siblings, uncle-niece, etc. are included. ✔
Conclusion: All statements are correct. Hence, the correct answer is (D).
99. प्रश्न
हिंदू विवाह अधिनियम, 1955 के अनुसार, किन परिस्थितियों में दो व्यक्ति "निषिद्ध संबंधों की डिग्री" में माने जाते हैं?
- I. एक दूसरे का प्रत्यक्ष पूर्वज या वंशज हो (गोद लिए संबंध सहित)।
- II. एक दूसरे के पूर्वज/वंशज के पति या पत्नी रहे हों।
- III. विस्तारित वैवाहिक संबंध जैसे भाई की पत्नी आदि।
- IV. भाई-बहन, चाचा-भतीजी, मामा-भांजी आदि संबंध।
सही उत्तर चुनिए:
- (A) I, III और IV
- (B) III और IV
- (C) II, III और IV
- (D) I, II, III और IV
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (D)
व्याख्या:
- I. सही। ✔
- II. सही। ✔
- III. सही। ✔
- IV. सही। ✔
निष्कर्ष: सभी कथन सही हैं, अतः उत्तर (D) है।
100. Question
Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment?
- (A) Article 48A
- (B) Article 39A
- (C) Article 51A(g)
- (D) Article 51A(h)
Answer
Correct Option: (C)
Explanation:
Article 51A(g) of the Constitution of India imposes a fundamental duty on every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
- (A) Incorrect. Article 48A relates to Directive Principles for protection of environment by the State. ❌
- (B) Incorrect. Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid. ❌
- (C) Correct. It is a Fundamental Duty regarding environment protection. ✔
- (D) Incorrect. Article 51A(h) relates to development of scientific temper. ❌
Conclusion: The correct answer is (C).
100. प्रश्न
भारतीय संविधान का कौन-सा अनुच्छेद प्रत्येक नागरिक का यह मूल कर्तव्य निर्धारित करता है कि वह प्राकृतिक पर्यावरण की रक्षा और सुधार करे?
- (A) अनुच्छेद 48A
- (B) अनुच्छेद 39A
- (C) अनुच्छेद 51A(g)
- (D) अनुच्छेद 51A(h)
उत्तर
सही विकल्प: (C)
व्याख्या:
अनुच्छेद 51A(g) प्रत्येक नागरिक का कर्तव्य बनाता है कि वह पर्यावरण की रक्षा करे।
- (A) गलत। ❌
- (B) गलत। ❌
- (C) सही। ✔
- (D) गलत। ❌
निष्कर्ष: सही उत्तर (C) है।